Previous posts in this series:
In this series, I’ve been examining the Greek word kurios and thinking about how 1st century conceptions of this word differed from the way we use the word today. In modern speech, the word Lord has almost entirely disappeared except as a mild oath (”Good Lord!”) and in the title of the Lord of the Rings movie trilogy.
It’s strange to think that we are discussing a Greek word that was prevalent in Roman culture. But Greek culture and language were in the ascendancy in Roman culture in the first century and had permeated every aspect of life and thought in the empire.
I’m curious about the relation between the Greek term kurios and the Latin pater familia. It would be interesting to know how these concepts related in the minds of 1st century Romans. I suspect that Philemon would be considered a pater familia even though he is what is being referred as kurios in the letter to the church at Colossae (Col. 4.1).
Here are some links to discussions of Roman culture especially as it applies to the discussion of kurios:
- Culture of ancient Rome
- Roman Slaves’ Work and Daily Life in Ancient Rome for Roman Slaves
- Roles of Men, Women and Children in Ancient Rome
- Social class in ancient Rome
- Daily Life in Ancient Rome
- Ancient Rome
I’m sorry to say that I don’t have time to write any more about this right now. But the above links are a valuable source of background information on the Lord concept in New Testament times.
I have two more topics that I’d like to discuss regarding kurios:
- How is kurios translated in Bible translations around the world
- Contextual analysis of kurios in the New Testament and Septuagint.
Until next time!
3 responses so far ↓
dt // January 23, 2007 at 3:36 am
I still wrestle with the conclusion that we are overlooking the most obvious meaning to the 1st century Jews who read the Greek scriptures. Their Greek bible used kurios as a placeholder for YHWH. Certainly they would have had some type of way to figure out when it was a placeholder and when it was a title/salutation, etc. dt
lingamish // January 23, 2007 at 9:51 am
By “their Greek bible” I think what you mean is the Septuagint. In that case you are right that kurios was used for the tetragrammaton. I don’t know how that carried over into their reading of the term in the New Testament writings.
kurios was such a common term I don’t think it is likely that 1st century Jews were using it as a placeholder for YHWH in the New Testament writings. It is used in a whole range of situations. Christ is a more evocative term in ways that we probably don’t appreciate. Also the “I am” passages in John’s gospel have been put forward as examples of Jesus using the tetragrammaton but I don’t have any strong feelings on the subject one way or the other.
Marlon // March 18, 2007 at 1:34 pm
Greetings to all,
I have been doing reserch on the WatchTower, or better known as “Jehovahs Witnesses”. And I just don’t see how they can have salvation when they deny the deity of Christ. They say he’s Michael the arch angel. They also call him “a god, with a lower case “g”. in John 1:1. And everywhere in the bible where it says, ” Christ in you” , in their New World Translation, they have “Christ is in union with you”. So I started reserching the whole organization. Even going back before their founder “Charles Taze Russell”. And that led me to a guy who lived in the 1700’s buy the name of “Henry Grew”. And after him, “George Storr”. So I finally find out, that it’s all about the “Tetragrammaton”. They put “Jehovah in the NT 237 times. They will not accept Lord. Because that means “Kurios” which puts Jesus equal with the Father. As you can see, I can go on and on about that organization. So my question is, what is going on with the idea of a christian German Scribe not understanding “YA”, and putting a “J” instead. And at what time did they start and stop using the “Tetragrammaton. Thanks for your time!
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